[Aug 23, 2026] Latest Fortinet Certification NSE6_EDR_AD-7.0 Actual Free Exam Questions
Fortinet Certification NSE6_EDR_AD-7.0 Dumps Updated Practice Test and 35 unique questions
NEW QUESTION # 19
Refer to the Exhibit:
A FortiEDR analyst is prioritizing response efforts. One application has a vulnerability score of Critical but an Unknown ACI rating, while another has a Medium vulnerability score with active ACI evidence of adversary targeting. Which application must be addressed first? (Choose one answer)
- A. The application with the Medium vulnerability score and ACI evidence should be addressed first.
- B. The application with the Critical vulnerability score should be addressed first.
- C. Both applications should be treated equally because patching is necessary.
- D. The decision depends only on asset criticality, not scores.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is D .
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide explains that FortiEDR displays two severity ratings for applications: NIST Severity and ACI Severity . NIST Severity is based on FortiEDR's vulnerability scoring system using the NIST Cybersecurity Framework. ACI Severity, however, is Adversary Centric Intelligence provided by FortiRecon and FortiGuard Threat Analysts, covering dark web, open-source, and technical threat intelligence, including threat actor insights . This helps administrators proactively assess risk, respond faster to incidents, understand attackers, and protect assets.
The guide also states that FortiEDR helps analysts prioritize alerts and incidents using risk factors such as severity of vulnerabilities , relevance of threat intelligence feeds , and severity of affected endpoints , so effort is focused on the most significant organizational risks.
Therefore, the application with Medium NIST severity but active ACI evidence of adversary targeting should be prioritized over an application with Critical NIST severity but Unknown ACI rating , because active adversary-centric intelligence indicates current attacker interest or exploitation relevance. In plain terms: a theoretical critical vulnerability matters, but an actively targeted vulnerability is the fire you put out first.
Option B is tempting but incomplete because it relies only on NIST/CVSS severity. FortiEDR's ACI rating exists specifically to add adversary context to prioritization. Option A is wrong because FortiEDR does not treat all vulnerable applications equally. Option C is wrong because asset criticality can matter, but the guide does not say prioritization depends only on asset criticality.
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NEW QUESTION # 20
You find third-party software on a user's computer that does not appear in the application list on the communication control console. Which two statements are true about this situation? (Choose two answers)
- A. The application is allowed in all communication control policies.
- B. The application is ignored because its reputation score is acceptable to the security policy.
- C. The application has not made any connection attempts.
- D. The application is blocked by the security policies.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
The best answers are A and D , but be careful: A is directly verified by the guide; D is the only remaining statement that can be true in policy context, but it is weaker than A.
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide states that the Communication Control tab identifies communicating applications detected in the organization. More specifically, the Applications page lists "all communicating applications detected in your organization that have ever attempted to communicate." Therefore, if software exists on a user's computer but does not appear in the Communication Control application list, the most direct explanation is that it has not attempted external communication .
The guide also explains that FortiEDR Communication Control reduces the scope of administration because Security/IT only needs to handle applications that communicate externally. It also states that non-authorized applications can still execute, and only their outgoing communication is prevented. This confirms that the Communication Control application list is not a full software inventory; it is a list of applications that have communicated or attempted communication.
Option B is not correct. If an application were blocked due to FortiEDR security-policy enforcement after a connection attempt, FortiEDR would generate security-event visibility in the Incidents workflow, not simply hide the application from Communication Control. FortiEDR Collectors send communication-related data for Communication Control, and security events are sent for enforcement/monitoring purposes.
Option C is also wrong. Reputation score affects policy decisions and application risk evaluation, but it does not cause an application to be ignored or excluded from the application list. The guide says each application in the Applications page shows a reputation indicator, which proves reputation is displayed for listed applications rather than used to hide them.
For option D , if the application has never attempted communication, Communication Control has no observed communication event to list. In exam logic, this can be interpreted as the application is not currently being denied by Communication Control policies. However, the stronger technical truth is this:
Communication Control does not list installed software; it lists applications that have attempted to communicate.
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NEW QUESTION # 21
Refer to the Exhibit:
Based on the event shown in the exhibit, which two statements about the event are true? (Choose two answers)
- A. The device is moved to isolation.
- B. The policy is in simulation mode.
- C. Playbooks are configured for this event.
- D. The event has been blocked.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
The correct answers are A and B .
The exhibit shows the event classification as Malicious , classified by FortinetCloudServices , and the history states that device R2D2-kvm63 was moved from the Training Collector Group to the High Security Collector Group . This is a Playbook action. The FortiEDR guide explains that after classification changes, the Overview pane displays the history of automatic FortiEDR actions, including Playbook policy-related actions .
The guide specifically lists Move device to High Security Group under Investigation actions in Playbook policies. It states that a checkmark in a classification column means the device is automatically moved to the High Security Collector Group when a security event with that classification is triggered. So the exhibit proves that Playbooks are configured for this event.
The second correct answer is B because the triggered rule is under Training * Extended Detection . The FortiEDR guide states that the eXtended Detection Policy logs events and displays them in the Incidents tab, but no blocking options are provided for this policy.
Option C is wrong because moving a device to the High Security Collector Group is not the same as isolating the device. Isolation would block communication to/from the affected Collector. The exhibit shows a Collector Group move, not isolation.
Option D is wrong because Extended Detection does not block. The guide explicitly says Extended Detection events are logged and displayed, with no blocking options provided.
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NEW QUESTION # 22
You are asked to create a playbook to isolate a device with a collector. Which action category does isolating a device with a collector fall under? (Choose one answer)
- A. Notifications
- B. Investigation
- C. Custom
- D. Remediation
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Investigation .
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide states that Investigation actions enable administrators to isolate a device or assign it to a high-security Collector Group for further investigation of the device's activity. Under the Investigation section, the guide lists the available investigation action types, including "Isolate device with Collector," "Isolate device with NAC," and "Move device to High Security Group." For Isolate device with Collector , the guide explains that the action blocks communication to and from the affected Collector, and it applies only to endpoint Collectors. If the Playbook policy is configured to isolate a device for a malicious event, then when a malicious security event is triggered, the device is isolated from communicating with the outside world for both sending and receiving.
So, this is not a Remediation , Custom , or Notification action. In FortiEDR Playbook policy terminology, Isolate device with Collector belongs under Investigation .
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NEW QUESTION # 23
A company requires a global communication policy for a FortiEDR multi-tenant environment. Which recommendation must you make? (Choose one answer)
- A. Create a new communication control policy and delegate it to other organizations.
- B. Create a separate communication control policy for each organization.
- C. Create a new communication control policy and apply it to multiple organizations.
- D. Create a new communication control policy and assign it globally to all organizations.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Create a separate communication control policy for each organization .
The key point is that Communication Control is not available in Hoster view . In a FortiEDR multi-tenant environment, Hoster view is the view used to display information for all organizations together. However, the guide clearly states under the Hoster view section: "Communication Control - The Communication Control window is not available in Hoster view." That means you cannot create one global Communication Control policy from Hoster view and assign it across all organizations. Options B , C , and D all assume cross-organization/global Communication Control policy assignment, but the guide does not support that capability. The practical recommendation is to configure Communication Control policies separately inside each organization.
The guide contrasts this with Security Policies, where in Hoster view the Security Policies page displays all policies from all organizations and supports cloning a security policy from one organization to another. That statement is for Security Policies , not Communication Control policies.
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NEW QUESTION # 24
Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the exhibit, which two observations are true? (Choose two answers)
- A. EDR has never encountered this malware before.
- B. FCS has classified this as malicious.
- C. FortiEDR has classified this as suspicious.
- D. This incident has been resolved.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
The correct answers are C and D .
The exhibit shows the incident classification as Malicious . In the Activity Audit, the entry from FortinetCloudServices states: "Classification change: Malicious" and also says the file is classified as malicious. This directly proves that FCS classified the event as malicious . The FortiEDR guide explains that the audit history shows the chronology for classifying the security event and displays details when FortiEDR Cloud Service (FCS) reclassifies a security event after its initial classification by the Core.
The exhibit also states that the file was "Detected as Unknown malware." This supports option D in the exam wording: FortiEDR/FCS has classified the file as malicious, but it is being identified as unknown malware , meaning it was not recognized as a known malware family/signature at the time of classification.
The guide explains that FCS enhances classification using data enrichment, automated and manual analysis, file analysis, sandboxing, machine learning flow analysis, commonality analysis, crowdsourced data deduction, and other methods, so "unknown malware" can still be classified malicious by FCS.
Option A is wrong because the exhibit shows Malicious , not Suspicious. Option B is wrong because the incident status is Unhandled , not resolved or handled.
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NEW QUESTION # 25
Refer to the Exhibit:
Based on the investigation view shown in the exhibit, which two statements about this event are true? (Choose two answers)
- A. An exception was created for this incident.
- B. The device has been isolated.
- C. The raw data is displayed in the stacks view.
- D. The exfiltration prevention policy blocked this event.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
The correct answers are A and C .
The exhibit shows a green checkmark in the Exception column for the filezilla.exe event. In FortiEDR, an exception means a whitelist has been created for a specific flow/security-event pattern. The guide states that exceptions limit enforcement of a rule and that after an exception is defined, identical new events are no longer triggered. It also explains that past security events display an icon indicating that an exception has been defined for them.
The exhibit also shows the event flow ending in filezilla.exe with a red highlighted activity and a blocked symbol. In the Incidents/Investigation workflow, FortiEDR represents blocked policy violations as security events, and the guide explains that FortiEDR can enforce policy by blocking malicious connection establishment requests to prevent exfiltration. It also states that Block means the malicious exfiltration or file- changing attempt was blocked.
NEW QUESTION # 26
A playbook is configured with two actions: terminate process and isolate device. The terminate process action fails because the process is protected by Windows. What is the expected behavior for the second action, isolate device? (Choose one answer)
- A. The playbook execution stops because the action fails.
- B. The playbook continues and executes the second action.
- C. The playbook generates a notification email and execution stops.
- D. The playbook execution pauses and requires administrator intervention.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is D .
The FortiEDR guide confirms that Playbook actions are automatic incident response actions configured under Security Settings > Playbooks and applied based on security event classification. It also confirms that actions such as Terminate Process and device isolation actions can be configured as playbook responses. For scheduled-query-triggered events, the guide states that FortiEDR can automatically apply the Playbook action assigned to the Collector Group that the triggering device belongs to.
For isolation, the guide shows that isolation actions such as Isolate device with NAC are configured under the Investigation section of Playbooks, and similar isolation actions are triggered automatically when selected for the relevant classification.
The uploaded guide does not provide a specific line saying "if terminate process fails, continue to the next action." Based on FortiEDR playbook behavior, configured actions are executed independently. A failure to terminate a protected Windows process does not automatically cancel the remaining playbook actions.
Therefore, the next configured action, isolate device , is still executed.
Options A , B , and C are wrong because the playbook does not pause for administrator intervention, does not stop merely because an email is generated, and does not cancel all remaining configured actions because one action failed.
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NEW QUESTION # 27
What specific action does FortiEDR take when the Zero Trust Device Tagging playbook is activated?
(Choose one answer)
- A. It updates FortiClient EMS through an API and assigns a classification fabric tag.
- B. It assigns a default tag to all endpoints.
- C. It removes unmanaged endpoints from FortiClient EMS.
- D. It disables the endpoint until a tag is assigned.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is C.
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide explains that Identity Management integration can use FortiClient EMS. The connector requires API credentials or FortiCloud credentials depending on whether FortiClient EMS is on-premises or cloud-based. The guide states that for the out-of-the-box action, such as Zero Trust device tagging on FortiClient EMS, FortiEDR tags the device as non-trusted in the identity management system and specifies the classification tag to apply in the Tag name field.
The guide also lists predefined FortiClient EMS 7.2 or later fabric tags used by FortiEDR, including FortiEDR_Malicious, FortiEDR_PUP, FortiEDR_Suspicious, FortiEDR_Likely_Safe, and FortiEDR_Probably_Good. These tags are used by FortiClient EMS to tag the endpoint based on FortiEDR classification.
Finally, the guide states that to configure the automated response, the administrator must go to Security Settings > Playbooks, open the relevant Playbook policy, and place a checkmark in the relevant classification column next to the Zero Trust device tagging row under Remediation. FortiEDR is then configured to automatically tag a device as non-trusted when a security event is triggered.
Options A, B, and D are wrong. FortiEDR does not remove unmanaged endpoints, does not apply a default tag to every endpoint, and does not disable the endpoint merely until a tag is assigned. The action is API- based FortiClient EMS tagging tied to FortiEDR event classification
NEW QUESTION # 28
Which two criteria are required for integrating FortiEDR with the Fortinet Security Fabric? (Choose two answers)
- A. Core with core-only functionality
- B. A Forensics add-on license
- C. A valid API user with access to connectors
- D. Central manager connected to FCS
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
The correct answers are A and C .
For Fortinet Security Fabric correlation through FortiAnalyzer or FortiAnalyzer Cloud, the FortiEDR guide states that FortiEDR can integrate with FortiAnalyzer/FortiAnalyzer Cloud "to correlate data between FortiEDR and the Fortinet Security Fabric and issue eXtended detection alerts." To complete this, you must configure an eXtended Detection Source connector and enable eXtended Detection rules and FortiEDR Threat Hunting event collection.
The prerequisites include connectivity from the FortiEDR Central Manager to Fortinet Cloud Services (FCS) . The same prerequisite list also requires either a FortiAnalyzer administrator account with JSON API access enabled or, for FortiAnalyzer Cloud, a valid FortiCloud API user with read/write access to the FortiAnalyzer Cloud portal.
Option B is wrong because a Forensics add-on license is not listed as a requirement for this integration.
Option D is badly worded and not correct. A Jumpbox with connectivity to FortiAnalyzer is required, and the guide points to FortiEDR Core setup for Jumpbox configuration, but the answer option says Core with core- only functionality , which is not the stated requirement.
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NEW QUESTION # 29
A collector attempts to access a known malicious website. FortiEDR is configured for eXtended detection with FortiAnalyzer. What two roles does Fortinet Cloud Services (FCS) perform in this process? (Choose two answers)
- A. FCS sends a log record to FortiAnalyzer.
- B. FCS sends OS metadata to the FortiEDR manager.
- C. FCS correlates and analyzes the collected logs.
- D. FCS identifies if a malicious event has taken place and reports the detection incident.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
The correct answers are C and D .
The guide states that for eXtended Detection Source integration, FortiEDR connects to external systems to collect activity logs. The aggregated data is then sent to Fortinet Cloud Services (FCS) , where it is correlated and analyzed to detect malicious indications. Those malicious indications result in security events for eXtended Detection policy rule violations .
For FortiAnalyzer/FortiAnalyzer Cloud specifically, the guide states that this integration is used to correlate data between FortiEDR and the Fortinet Security Fabric and issue eXtended Detection alerts .
Option A is wrong because FCS does not send the original log record to FortiAnalyzer. FortiAnalyzer is the external source whose data is correlated with FortiEDR data. Option B is wrong because OS metadata is collected by the Collector and handled through FortiEDR components; the FCS role here is cloud-side enrichment, correlation, and detection, not sending OS metadata back to the manager.
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NEW QUESTION # 30
What action does an on-premises reputation server take when it receives a hash request that is not found in its local database? (Choose one answer)
- A. Automatically blocks applications with unknown hashes
- B. Ignores them until manually updated
- C. Stores them locally and waits for endpoint input
- D. Requests the missing hashes from the cloud reputation service
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is C .
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide states that for on-premises deployments, the on-premise reputation service requests missing hashes from the cloud reputation service . If a proxy is not enabled, it requests the missing hashes from the cloud reputation service through the manager nginx . If a proxy is enabled, the on-premises reputation service requests the missing hashes through the proxy.
So, when the local reputation database does not contain the requested hash, the on-premises reputation server does not ignore the request, wait for endpoint input, or automatically block the application. It queries the cloud reputation service for the missing hash reputation data.
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NEW QUESTION # 31
Within the FortiEDR architecture, which component needs JumpBox capabilities to enable authenticated and controlled communication with FortiAnalyzer? (Choose one answer)
- A. Aggregator
- B. Central manager
- C. Core
- D. Reputation Server
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Core.
For FortiAnalyzer / FortiAnalyzer Cloud integration, the FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide states that one prerequisite is "A Jumpbox with connectivity to FortiAnalyzer." The same section says to refer to Setting up the FortiEDR Core for details about installing a FortiEDR Core and configuring it as a Jumpbox. In the connector configuration, the guide also states that the Jumpbox field is used to select the FortiEDR Jumpbox that will communicate with FortiAnalyzer or FortiAnalyzer Cloud.
So, the FortiEDR component associated with JumpBox capability is the Core. The Central Manager must have connectivity to Fortinet Cloud Services, but it is not the component configured as the JumpBox. The Aggregator handles registration, configuration, and monitoring between Collectors/Cores and Central Manager, and the Reputation Server is unrelated to FortiAnalyzer JumpBox communication in this context.
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NEW QUESTION # 32
What specific action does FortiEDR take when the Zero Trust Device Tagging playbook is activated?
(Choose one answer)
- A. It updates FortiClient EMS through an API and assigns a classification fabric tag.
- B. It assigns a default tag to all endpoints.
- C. It removes unmanaged endpoints from FortiClient EMS.
- D. It disables the endpoint until a tag is assigned.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 33
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