[Jul 02, 2024] Free Cybersecurity Audit Cybersecurity-Audit-Certificate Exam Question
Cybersecurity-Audit-Certificate dumps & Cybersecurity Audit sure practice dumps
NEW QUESTION # 47
One way to control the integrity of digital assets is through the use of:
- A. caching.
- B. frameworks.
- C. policies.
- D. hashing.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Hashing is a method used to ensure the integrity of digital assets. It involves applying a hash function to the digital asset's data to produce a unique hash value. This value acts as a digital fingerprint; any alteration to the data will result in a different hash value when the hash function is reapplied. This makes it easy to detect unauthorized changes to the data, thereby protecting the integrity of the digital assets.
NEW QUESTION # 48
Which of the following should an IS auditor do FIRST to ensure cyber security-related legal and regulatory requirements are followed by an organization?
- A. Determine if the cybersecurity program is mapped to relevant legal and regulatory requirements.
- B. Review the most recent legal and regulatory audit report conducted by an independent party.
- C. Determine if there is a formal process to review changes in legal and regulatory requirements.
D Obtain a list of relevant legal and regulatory requirements.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The FIRST thing that an IS auditor should do to ensure cyber security-related legal and regulatory requirements are followed by an organization is to determine if the cybersecurity program is mapped to relevant legal and regulatory requirements. This is because mapping the cybersecurity program to relevant legal and regulatory requirements helps to ensure that the organization has identified and addressed all the applicable laws and regulations that affect its cybersecurity posture, such as data protection, privacy, breach notification, etc. Mapping the cybersecurity program to relevant legal and regulatory requirements also helps to evaluate the alignment and compliance of the organization's cybersecurity policies, procedures, controls, and practices with the legal and regulatory requirements. The other options are not the first thing that an IS auditor should do to ensure cyber security-related legal and regulatory requirements are followed by an organization, but rather follow after determining if the cybersecurity program is mapped to relevant legal and regulatory requirements, such as reviewing the most recent legal and regulatory audit report (B), determining if there is a formal process to review changes in legal and regulatory requirements C, or obtaining a list of relevant legal and regulatory requirements (D).
NEW QUESTION # 49
Which of the following BEST characterizes security mechanisms for mobile devices?
- A. Configurable and reliable across device types
- B. Comparatively weak relative to workstations
- C. Inadequate for organizational use
- D. Easy to control through mobile device management
Answer: D
Explanation:
The BEST characteristic that describes security mechanisms for mobile devices is easy to control through mobile device management. This is because mobile device management is a technique that allows organizations to centrally manage and secure mobile devices, such as smartphones, tablets, laptops, etc., that are used by their employees or customers. Mobile device management helps to enforce security policies, configure settings, install applications, monitor usage, wipe data, etc., on mobile devices remotely and efficiently. The other options are not characteristics that describe security mechanisms for mobile devices, but rather different aspects or factors that affect security mechanisms for mobile devices, such as weakness (B), inadequacy C, or reliability (D).
NEW QUESTION # 50
Which type of firewall blocks many types of attacks, such as cross-site scripting (XSS) and structured query language (SQL) injection?
- A. Web application
- B. Stateful inspection
- C. Intrusion detection
- D. Host-based
Answer: A
Explanation:
A web application firewall (WAF) is specifically designed to monitor, filter, and block HTTP traffic to and from a web application. It is different from other types of firewalls because it can filter the content of specific web applications. By inspecting HTTP traffic, a WAF can prevent attacks stemming from web application security flaws, such as SQL injection and cross-site scripting (XSS), file inclusion, and security misconfigurations.
NEW QUESTION # 51
Which of the following are politically motivated hackers who target specific individuals or organizations to achieve various ideological ends?
- A. Malware researchers
- B. Cybercriminals
- C. Hacktivists
- D. Script kiddies
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Hacktivists are politically motivated hackers who target specific individuals or organizations to achieve various ideological ends. They may use various methods such as defacing websites, launching denial-of-service attacks, leaking confidential information, or spreading propaganda to advance their causes or protest against perceived injustices.
NEW QUESTION # 52
Which of the following is the BEST indication of mature third-party vendor risk management for an organization?
- A. The organization maintains vendor security assessment checklists.
- B. The organization's security program follows the thud party's security program.
- C. The third party maintains annual assessments of control effectiveness.
- D. The third party's security program Mows the organization s security program.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The BEST indication of mature third-party vendor risk management for an organization is that the organization maintains vendor security assessment checklists. This is because vendor security assessment checklists help the organization to evaluate and monitor the security posture and performance of their third-party vendors, based on predefined criteria and standards. Vendor security assessment checklists also help the organization to identify and mitigate any gaps or issues in the vendor's security controls or processes.
The other options are not as indicative of mature third-party vendor risk management for an organization, because they either involve following or mimicking the security program of either party without considering their own needs or risks (A, D), or relying on the vendor's self-assessment without independent verification or validation C.
NEW QUESTION # 53
Which of the following is a feature of an intrusion detection system (IDS)?
- A. Automated response
- B. Intrusion prevention
- C. Back doors into applications
- D. Interface with firewalls
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
A feature of an intrusion detection system (IDS) is automated response. This is because an IDS is a system that monitors network or system activities for malicious or anomalous behavior, and alerts or reports on any detected incidents. An IDS can also perform automated response actions, such as blocking traffic, terminating sessions, or sending notifications, to contain or mitigate the incidents. The other options are not features of an IDS, but rather different concepts or techniques that are related to intrusion detection or prevention, such as intrusion prevention (A), interface with firewalls C, or back doors into applications (D).
NEW QUESTION # 54
The risk of an evil twin attack on mobile devices is PRIMARILY due to:
- A. weak authentication protocols in wireless networks.
- B. generic names that mobile devices will accept without verification.
- C. use of data transmission that is not always encrypted.
- D. tokens stored as plain text in many mobile device applications.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The risk of an evil twin attack on mobile devices is PRIMARILY due to the use of generic names that mobile devices will accept without verification. An evil twin attack is a type of wireless network attack where an attacker sets up a rogue access point that mimics a legitimate one. The attacker can then lure unsuspecting users to connect to the rogue access point and intercept their data or launch further attacks. Mobile devices are vulnerable to evil twin attacks because they often use generic names for their wireless networks, such as "Free WiFi" or "Public Hotspot". These names can be easily spoofed by an attacker and accepted by mobile devices without verifying the identity or security of the access point.
NEW QUESTION # 55
Which control mechanism is used to detect the unauthorized modification of key configuration settings?
- A. Whitelisting
- B. Sandboxing
- C. URL filtering
- D. File integrity
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The control mechanism that is used to detect the unauthorized modification of key configuration settings is file integrity. File integrity is the property of ensuring that files are not altered or corrupted by unauthorized users or processes. File integrity can be monitored by using tools that compare the current state of files with a baseline or checksum and alert on any changes.
NEW QUESTION # 56
Which of the following BEST facilitates the development of metrics for repotting to senior management on vulnerability management efforts?
- A. Reviewing business impact analysis (BIA) results
- B. Regularly benchmarking the number of new vulnerabilities identified with industry peers
- C. Tracking vulnerabilities and the remediation efforts to mitigate them
- D. Monitoring the frequency of vulnerability assessments using automated scans
Answer: C
Explanation:
The BEST feature that facilitates the development of metrics for reporting to senior management on vulnerability management efforts is tracking vulnerabilities and the remediation efforts to mitigate them. This is because tracking vulnerabilities and remediation efforts helps to measure and monitor the performance and effectiveness of vulnerability management efforts, by providing quantifiable and objective data on the number, severity, impact, status, and resolution time of vulnerabilities. Tracking vulnerabilities and remediation efforts also helps to identify and communicate any gaps or issues in vulnerability management efforts to senior management and other stakeholders. The other options are not features that facilitate the development of metrics for reporting to senior management on vulnerability management efforts, but rather different aspects or factors that affect vulnerability management efforts, such as reviewing business impact analysis (BIA) results (A), benchmarking with industry peers (B), or monitoring the frequency of vulnerability assessments (D).
NEW QUESTION # 57
Which of the following provides the GREATEST assurance that data can be recovered and restored in a timely manner in the event of data loss?
- A. The recovery plan is executed during or after an event
- B. Data backups are available onsite for recovery.
- C. full data backup is performed daily.
- D. Backups of information are regularly tested.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The feature that provides the GREATEST assurance that data can be recovered and restored in a timely manner in the event of data loss is that backups of information are regularly tested. This is because testing backups helps to ensure that they are valid, complete, and usable, and that they can be restored within the expected time frame and without errors or corruption. Testing backups also helps to identify and resolve any issues or problems with the backup process, media, or software. The other options are not features that provide the greatest assurance that data can be recovered and restored in a timely manner in the event of data loss, but rather different aspects or factors that affect the backup process, such as availability (B), execution C, or frequency (D) of backups.
NEW QUESTION # 58
Security awareness training is MOST effective against which type of threat?
- A. Command injection
- B. Denial of service
- C. Social injection
- D. Social engineering
Answer: D
Explanation:
Security awareness training is MOST effective against social engineering threats. This is because social engineering is a type of attack that exploits human psychology and behavior to manipulate or trick users into revealing sensitive or confidential information, or performing actions that compromise security. Security awareness training helps to educate users about the common types and techniques of social engineering attacks, such as phishing, vishing, baiting, etc., and how to recognize and avoid them. Security awareness training also helps to foster a culture of security within the organization and empower users to report any suspicious or malicious activities. The other options are not types of threats that security awareness training is most effective against, but rather types of attacks that exploit technical vulnerabilities or flaws in systems or applications, such as command injection (A), denial of service (B), or SQL injection (D).
NEW QUESTION # 59
Which of the following is a feature of an intrusion detection system (IDS)?
- A. Automated response
- B. Intrusion prevention
- C. Back doors into applications
- D. Interface with firewalls
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
A feature of an intrusion detection system (IDS) is automated response. This is because an IDS is a system that monitors network or system activities for malicious or anomalous behavior, and alerts or reports on any detected incidents. An IDS can also perform automated response actions, such as blocking traffic, terminating sessions, or sending notifications, to contain or mitigate the incidents. The other options are not features of an IDS, but rather different concepts or techniques that are related to intrusion detection or prevention, such as intrusion prevention (A), interface with firewalls C, or back doors into applications (D).
NEW QUESTION # 60
Which of the following provides the GREATEST assurance that data can be recovered and restored in a timely manner in the event of data loss?
- A. The recovery plan is executed during or after an event
- B. Data backups are available onsite for recovery.
- C. full data backup is performed daily.
- D. Backups of information are regularly tested.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The feature that provides the GREATEST assurance that data can be recovered and restored in a timely manner in the event of data loss is that backups of information are regularly tested. This is because testing backups helps to ensure that they are valid, complete, and usable, and that they can be restored within the expected time frame and without errors or corruption. Testing backups also helps to identify and resolve any issues or problems with the backup process, media, or software. The other options are not features that provide the greatest assurance that data can be recovered and restored in a timely manner in the event of data loss, but rather different aspects or factors that affect the backup process, such as availability (B), execution C, or frequency (D) of backups.
NEW QUESTION # 61
Which of the following describes specific, mandatory controls or rules to support and comply with a policy?
- A. Guidelines
- B. Frameworks
- C. Basedine
- D. Standards
Answer: D
Explanation:
Specific, mandatory controls or rules to support and comply with a policy are known as standards. This is because standards define the minimum level of performance or behavior that is expected from an organization or its employees in order to achieve a policy objective or requirement. Standards also provide clear and measurable criteria for auditing and monitoring compliance with policies. The other options are not specific, mandatory controls or rules to support and comply with a policy, but rather different types of documents or tools that provide guidance or recommendations for implementing policies or controls, such as frameworks (A), guidelines (B), or baselines C.
NEW QUESTION # 62
Which of the following provides additional protection other than encryption to messages transmitted using portable wireless devices?
- A. Intrusion detection system (IDS)
- B. Intrusion prevention system (IPS)
- C. Endpoint protection
- D. Virtual private network (VPN)
Answer: D
Explanation:
A Virtual Private Network (VPN) provides additional protection to messages transmitted using portable wireless devices by creating a secure and encrypted tunnel for data transmission. This helps protect the data from being intercepted or accessed by unauthorized entities. While encryption secures the content of the messages, a VPN secures the transmission path, adding an extra layer of security.
NEW QUESTION # 63
The discovery of known dangerous artifacts on a network such as IP addresses or domain names helps to identify which of the following?
- A. Unauthorized access
- B. System vulnerabilities
- C. Data breach
- D. Indicator of compromise
Answer: D
Explanation:
The presence of known dangerous artifacts like malicious IP addresses or domain names on a network typically indicates that a security breach has occurred or is in progress. These artifacts are often recognized as indicators of compromise (IoCs), which are pieces of forensic data, such as system log entries or files, that identify potentially malicious activity on a system or network. Identifying IoCs is crucial for cybersecurity as it allows organizations to detect breaches quickly and respond to them promptly.
NEW QUESTION # 64
When reviewing user management roles, which of the following groups presents the GREATEST risk based on their permissions?
- A. Privileged users
- B. Database administrators
- C. Terminated employees
- D. Contractors
Answer: A
Explanation:
When reviewing user management roles, the group that presents the GREATEST risk based on their permissions is privileged users. This is because privileged users are users who have elevated or special access rights or permissions to systems or resources, such as administrators, superusers, root users, etc. Privileged users present the greatest risk based on their permissions, because they can perform actions or operations that can affect the security, availability, or functionality of systems or resources, such as installing or uninstalling software, modifying or deleting files, granting or revoking access rights, etc. Privileged users can also abuse or misuse their permissions for malicious or unauthorized purposes, such as stealing or leaking sensitive data, sabotaging systems or services, bypassing security controls, etc. The other options are not groups that present the greatest risk based on their permissions, but rather different types of users that may have different levels of access rights or permissions to systems or resources, such as database administrators (B), terminated employees C, or contractors (D).
NEW QUESTION # 65
......
ISACA Cybersecurity-Audit-Certificate Actual Questions and Braindumps: https://freetorrent.braindumpsvce.com/Cybersecurity-Audit-Certificate_exam-dumps-torrent.html